Communicating the same information to a human and to a machine: Is there a difference in principle?

In Konstantinos Boudouris & Takis Poulakos (eds.), Philosophy of communication: Proceedings of the 13th international conference on Greek philosophy (IAGP 13). Ionia. pp. 168-176 (2002)
  Copy   BIBTEX

Abstract

We try to show that there is no difference in principle between communicating a piece of information to a human and to a machine. The argumentation depends on the following theses: Communicating is transfer of information; information has propositional form; propositional form can be modelled as categorization; categorisation can be modelled in a machine; a suitably equipped machine can grasp propositional content designed for human communication. What I suggest is that the discussion should focus on the truth and precise meaning of these statements. However, in case these statements are true it follows that: For any act of communication that successfully transfers a piece of information to a human, that act could also transfer that piece of information to a machine.

Author's Profile

Vincent C. Müller
Universität Erlangen-Nürnberg

Analytics

Added to PP
2016-03-11

Downloads
230 (#65,820)

6 months
45 (#85,887)

Historical graph of downloads since first upload
This graph includes both downloads from PhilArchive and clicks on external links on PhilPapers.
How can I increase my downloads?